Chapter 1: Introduction to Project Management
1. Many organizations claim that using project management provides advantages, such as __________.
a. higher profit margins
b. shorter development times
c. improved customer relations
d. All of the above
2. Microsoft Project is the most widely used project management software today and is an example of a __________ tool.
a. low-end
b. midrange
c. high-end
d. diagramming
3. Which of the following helps projects succeed?
a. customized software infrastructure
b. broad scope
c. executive support
d. flexible basic requirements
4. Motivation techniques, empathic listening, team contracts, resource histograms, and resource leveling are examples of the tools and techniques project managers can use in project __________ management.
a. integration
b. scope
c. quality
d. human resource
5. To create a successful project, a project manager must consider scope, time, and cost and balance these often-competing goals. This is sometimes referred to in project management as the __________.
a. triple constraint
b. quadruple constraint
c. project portfolio
d. critical path
6. Project __________ management involves acquiring goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
a. human resource
b. communications
c. risk
d. procurement
7. In many organizations, project managers also support an emerging business strategy of project __________ management, in which organizations group and manage projects as a portfolio of investments that contributed to the entire enterprise's success.
a. integration
b. portfolio
c. scope
8. A(n) __________ is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format.
a. critical path
b. network diagram
c. resource histogram
d. Gantt chart
9. Project __________ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken.
a. quality
b. cost
c. time
d. scope
10. According to the Project Management Institute, a(n) __________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
a. operation
b. project
c. product
d. program
11. Generally, a(n) __________ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people to reach those goals.
a. manager
b. leader
c. sponsor
d. stakeholder
12. Project __________ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
a. human resource
b. communications
c. risk
d. procurement
13. Effective project managers __________.
a. stand up to top management when necessary
b. do not need to be technically competent
c. stick to the original plan, rather than encourage new ideas
d. should not lead by example
14. __________ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the project.
a. Project Managers
b. Program Managers
c. Top management
d. Stakeholders
15. Project _________ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas.
a. scope
b. integration
c. procurement
d. cost
16. By the end of May 2004, there were roughly how many certified project management professionals (PMPs)?
a. 10,000
b. 25,000
c. 80,000
d. 200,000
17. Project __________ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully.
a. time
b. scope
c. cost
d. quality
18. If the vice president of sales initiates a project to improve direct product sales using the Internet, he or she might be the __________.
a. project manager
b. program manager
c. project sponsor
d. Project Management Professional (PMP)
19. Generally, a(n) __________ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific goals.
a. manager
b. leader
c. sponsor
d. stakeholder
20. Members of the Navy Polaris missile/submarine project first used __________ in 1958 to help managers model the relationships among project tasks.
a. critical paths
b. network diagrams
c. resource histograms
d. Gantt charts
Chapter 2: The Project Management and Information Technology Context
1. Which organizational frame is very rational and focuses on coordination and control?
a. human resources frame
b. political frame
c. structural frame
d. symbolic frame
2. Which of the following best describes a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of the system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs?
a. systems analysis
b. systems management
c. systems thinking
d. systems philosophy
3. __________ addresses the business, technological, and organizational issues associated with creating, maintaining, and making a change to a system.
a. Systems analysis
b. Systems management
c. Systems thinking
d. Systems philosophy
4. To handle complex situations effectively, project managers need to take a holistic view of a project and understand how it relates to the larger organization. _________ describes this holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization.
a. Systems analysis
b. Systems management
c. Systems thinking
d. Systems philosophy
5. What is most important about any event in an organization is not what actually happened, but what it means. This philosophy describes the __________ frame.
a. human resources
b. political
c. structural
d. symbolic
6. A(n) __________ organizational structure is the hierarchy most people think of when picturing an organizational chart.
a. project
b. matrix
c. functional
d. political
7. __________ is similar to other life cycle models that use iterative development to address changing requirements, but the repetitions are referred to as sprints, which normally last 30 days.
a. Extreme programming (XP)
b. Scrum
c. Agile software development
d. Adaptive Software development (ASD)
8. In a(n) _________ life cycle, the project team spends a large portion of the project effort attempting to clarify the requirements of the entire system and then producing a design.
a. project
b. product
c. systems development
d. predictive
9. Project managers in __________ organizational structures have staff from various functional areas working on their projects.
a. project
b. matrix
c. functional
d. political
10. Important attributes of the __________ life cycle model are that the projects are mission driven and component based, using time-based cycles to meet target dates.
a. predictive
b. Adaptive Software Development (ASD)
c. agile software development
d. systems development
11. In organizational culture, the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment describes _________.
a. conflict tolerance
b. risk tolerance
c. means-ends orientation
d. open-systems focus
12. The idea of addressing the three spheres of systems management - business, __________, and technology - can have a huge impact on selecting and managing projects successfully.
a. quality
b. organization
c. cost
d. scope
13. An organization that uses this type of organizational structure earns their revenue primarily from performing projects for other groups under contract. These companies often hire people specifically to work on particular projects.
a. project
b. matrix
c. functional
d. political
14. The __________ frame recognizes that there are often mismatches between the needs of the organization and the needs of individuals and groups and works to resolve any potential problems.
a. human resources
b. political
c. structural
d. symbolic
15. Which of the following is an overall model for thinking about things as systems?
a. systems analysis
b. systems management
c. systems thinking
d. systems philosophy
16. A(n) __________ is a collection of project phases.
a. product life cycle
b. project life cycle
c. systems development life cycle
d. predictive life cycle
17. One unique feature of the __________ life cycle model is that developers program in pairs to promote synergy and increase productivity.
a. extreme programming (XP)
b. Scrum
c. agile software development
d. Adaptive Software Development (ASD)
18. In the __________ project phase, the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS.
a. concept
b. development
c. implementation
d. close-out
19. In this life cycle phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders.
a. concept
b. development
c. implementation
d. close-out
20. Some projects have a senior manager called a(n) _________ who acts as a key proponent for a project.
a. stakeholder
b. champion
c. sponsor
d. project manager
Chapter 3: The Project Management Process Groups
1. The majority of project management processes occur as part of the __________ process group.
a. planning
b. monitoring and controlling
c. closing
d. initiating
2. An organization may initiate information technology projects for several reasons, but the most important reason is to __________.
a. increase profits
b. support business objectives
c. gain customer loyalty
d. improve product quality
3. The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project. Normally, the __________ processes require the most resources and time, followed by the planning processes.
a. planning
b. executing
c. closing
d. monitoring and controlling
4. Which of the following is an output of the monitoring and controlling processes?
a. the project management plan
b. the scope statement
c. status reports
d. qualified sellers list
5. Which of the following is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members?
a. extreme programming (XP)
b. agile software development
c. Scrum
d. Rational Unified Process (RUP)
6. Research suggests that companies working to implement best practices should spend at least __________ percent of project time in initiating and planning.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
7. Which project management process group includes devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project address the organization's needs?
a. planning
b. executing
c. monitoring and controlling
d. closing
8. Which of the following is a common output of the closing process?
a. a cost estimate
b. a lessons-learned report
c. quality control updates
d. change requests
9. Project management __________ progress from initiation activities to planing activities, executing activities, monitoring and controlling activities, and closing activities.
a. knowledge areas
b. methodologies
c. life cycles
d. process groups
10. Archiving project files, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project are all activities often involved in which project management process group?
a. planning
b. executing
c. monitoring and controlling
d. closing
11. A common __________ process is performance reporting, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track.
a. planning
b. executing
c. monitoring and controlling
d. closing
12. If changes to the project objectives or plans are required, __________ processes ensure that these changes are made efficiently and effectively to meet stakeholder needs and expectations.
a. planning
b. executing
c. initiating
d. monitoring and controlling
13. The __________ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end.
a. planning
b. closing
c. executing
d. monitoring and controlling
14. Which of the following is an output of project initiation?
a. determining task resources
b. creating the final Gantt chart
c. preparing the work breakdown structure
d. completing and signing the project charter
15. A(n) __________ describes how things should be done, and different organizations often have different ways of doing things.
a. PMBOK Guide
b. methodology
c. life cycle
d. Rational Unified Process (RUP)
16. Which of the following is a common output of the planning process?
a. assigning the project manager
b. identifying key stakeholders
c. creating the procurement management plan
d. creating the project management plan
17. _________ processes take place during each phase of a project. Therefore, you cannot equate process groups with project phases.
a. Planning
b. Executing
c. Initiating
d. Closing
Chapter 5: Project Scope Management
1. Most project managers consider the __________ of WBS construction to be conventional; you start with the largest items of the project and break them into their subordinate items.
a. analogy approach
b. top-down approach
c. bottom-up approach
d. mind-mapping approach
2. The preliminary __________ should provide basic scope information, and should continue to clarify and provide information that is more specific.
a. scope statement
b. cost estimate
c. stakeholder analysis
d. schedule milestones
3. The project scope statement, WBS dictionary, project scope management plan, and deliverables are the main input for __________.
a. the work breakdown structure
b. scope creep
c. scope control
d. scope verification
4. __________ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders - the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on - to jointly define and design information systems.
a. The bottom-up approach
b. Mind mapping
c. Joint Application Design (JAD)
d. Prototyping
5. The approved project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary form the __________.
a. work package
b. project management plan
c. scope verification
d. scope baseline
6. Key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables of the project during which process of project scope management?
a. scope control
b. scope verification
c. creating the WBS
d. scope definition
7. In which approach to creating a WBS do team members first identify as many specific tasks related to the project as possible?
a. analogy approach
b. top-down approach
c. bottom-up approach
d. mind-mapping approach
8. Instead of writing tasks down in a list or immediately trying to create a structure for tasks, the __________ allows people to write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format.
a. analogy approach
b. top-down approach
c. bottom-up approach
d. mind-mapping approach
9. __________ is the difference between planned and actual performance.
a. Decomposition
b. Scope creep
c. Scope baseline
d. Variance
10. Even when the project scope is fairly well defined, many information technology project suffer from __________, which is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.
a. kill points
b. scope creep
c. scope control
d. scope verification
11. Which of the following is a basic principle that applies to creating any good WBS and its WBS dictionary?
a. A unit of work should appear at several places in the WBS.
b. The work content of a WBS item is the sum of the WBS items above it.
c. A WBS item is the responsibility of only one individual, even though many people may be working on it.
d. Project team members should rarely be involved in developing the WBS.
12. The project scope statement and project management plan are the primary input for creating a(n) __________.
a. scope baseline
b. work package
c. work breakdown structure
d. prototype
13. One approach for constructing a WBS is the __________, in which you use a similar project's WBS as a starting point.
a. analogy approach
b. top-down approach
c. bottom-up approach
d. mind-mapping approach
14. The main output of scope planning is a(n) __________.
a. scope baseline
b. scope management plan
c. work breakdown structure
d. project scope statement
15. Which of the following processes of project scope management involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?
a. scope control
b. scope verification
c. creating the WBS
d. scope definition
16. Which of the following processes of project scope management includes identifying, evaluating, and implementing changes to project scope as the project progresses?
a. scope control
b. scope verification
c. creating the WBS
d. scope definition
17. __________ can be product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software, or process-related, such as a planning document or meeting minutes.
a. Project scope management
b. Deliverables
c. Scope statements
d. Prototypes
18. A(n) __________ represents the lowest level of work that the project manager is using to monitor and control the project.
a. scope baseline
b. work package
c. work breakdown structure
d. milestone
19. One of the most important and most difficult aspects of project management is defining the __________ of the project.
a. budget
b. outputs
c. business objectives
d. scope
20. Which of the following processes of project scope management involves reviewing the project charter and preliminary scope statement created during the initiation process and adding more information during the planning process as requirements are developed and change requests are approved?
a. scope control
b. scope verification
c. creating the WBS
d. scope definition
Chapter 6: Project Time Management
1. __________ states that work expands to fill the time allowed.
a. Murphy's Law
b. PERT
c. Parkinson's Law
d. Theory of Constraints (TOC)
2. __________ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.
a. Fast tracking
b. Multitasking
c. Crashing
d. Merging
3. The planned schedule dates for activities are called the _________.
a. schedule baselines
b. baseline dates
c. milestones
d. nodes
4. Which of the following involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence?
a. crashing
b. bursting
c. multitasking
d. fast tracking
5. __________ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.
a. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
b. Critical chain scheduling
c. Critical Path Method (CPM)
d. Activity sequencing
6. The main outputs of which project time management process are activity resource requirements, a resource breakdown structure, requested changes, and updates to the activity attributes and resource calendars?
a. activity definition
b. activity duration estimating
c. activity sequencing
d. activity resource estimating
7. A(n) __________ is a schematic display of the logical relationships among, or sequencing of, project activities.
a. Gantt chart
b. critical path
c. tracking Gantt chart
d. network diagram
8. __________ describes the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities.
a. Free slack
b. Total slack
c. Crashing
d. Fast tracking
9. A(n) __________ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type.
a. work breakdown structure
b. tracking Gantt chart
c. schedule baseline
d. resource breakdown structure
10. There are many issues involved in controlling changes to project schedules. It is important first to ensure that the project schedule is _________.
a. detailed and specific
b. realistic
c. reliable
d. flexible
11. A(n) __________ dependency is inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project and is sometimes referred to as hard logic.
a. mandatory
b. discretionary
c. external
d. finish-to-finish
12. In critical path analysis, a(n) __________ determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
a. backward pass
b. late start date
c. forward pass
d. late finish date
13. Which of the following processes of project time management involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities?
a. activity definition
b. activity duration estimating
c. activity sequencing
d. activity resource estimating
14. On several information technology projects, a group of activities all start simultaneously, such as the many tasks that occur when a new system goes live. This is an example of which type of relationship?
a. finish-to-start
b. start-to-start
c. finish-to-finish
d. start-to-finish
15. Which of the following processes of project time management involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to completed individual activities?
a. activity definition
b. activity duration estimating
c. activity sequencing
d. activity resource estimating
16. Which of the following describes a relationship where the 'from' activity must be finished before the 'to' activity can be finished?
a. finish-to-start
b. start-to-start
c. finish-to-finish
d. start-to-finish
17. __________ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date.
a. Activity duration estimating
b. Critical chain scheduling
c. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
d. Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
18. A project team might follow good practice and not start the detailed design of a new information system until the users sign off on all of the analysis work. This is an example of a(n) __________ dependency.
a. mandatory
b. discretionary
c. external
d. finish-to-finish
19. Which of the following processes of project time management involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables?
a. activity definition
b. activity duration estimating
c. activity sequencing
d. activity resource estimating
20. A(n) __________ on a project is a significant event that normally has no duration.
a. activity list
b. activity attribute
c. milestone
d. dependency
Chapter 7: Project Cost Management
1. Which of the following is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period?
a. planned value (PV)
b. actual cost (AC)
c. earned value (EV)
d. rate of performance (RP)
2. Which of the following is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project?
a. cost variance (CV)
b. schedule variance (SV)
c. cost of performance index (CPI)
d. schedule performance index (SPI)
3. Which of the following processes of project cost management involves developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project?
a. cost estimating
b. cost budgeting
c. cost control
d. cash flow analysis
4. Suppose a project included a summary activity of purchasing and installing a new Web server. Suppose further that, according to the plan, it would take one week and cost a total of $10,000 for the labor hours, hardware, and software involved. The __________ for that activity that week is, therefore, $10,000.
a. planned value (PV)
b. actual cost (AC)
c. earned value (EV)
d. rate of performance (RP)
5. When deciding what project to invest in or continue, you should not include __________.
a. direct costs
b. indirect costs
c. sunk cost
d. intangible costs
6. Which of the following is the earned value minus the planned value?
a. cost variance (CV)
b. schedule variance (SV)
c. cost of performance index (CPI)
d. schedule performance index (SPI)
7. Which type of estimate uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project?
a. top-down estimate
b. bottom-up estimate
c. parametric model
d. definitive estimate
8. The __________ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
a. planned value (PV)
b. actual cost (AC)
c. earned value (EV)
d. rate of performance (RP)
9. The drawback with __________ is that they are usually time-intensive and therefore expensive to develop.
a. top-down estimates
b. bottom-up estimates
c. parametric modeling
d. definitive estimates
10. __________ for projects often include items like goodwill, prestige, and general statements of improved productivity that an organization cannot easily translate into dollar amounts.
a. Direct costs
b. Indirect costs
c. Sunk cost
d. Intangible costs
11. __________ are used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.
a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimates
b. Budgetary estimates
c. Definitive estimates
d. Analogous estimates
12. Which of the following is the earned value minus the actual cost?
a. cost variance (CV)
b. schedule variance (SV)
c. cost of performance index (CPI)
d. schedule performance index (SPI)
13. The __________ is the additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual costs exceed estimates.
a. cost baseline
b. cost overrun
c. profit margin
d. sunk cost
14. To increase __________, a company can increase revenues, decrease expenses, or try to do both.
a. cost baselines
b. reserves
c. rate of performance
d. profits
15. The main outputs of which process of project cost management include: performance measurements, forecasted completion information, recommended corrective action, and updates to the project management plan (which includes the cost management plan)?
a. cost estimating
b. cost budgeting
c. cost control
d. cash flow analysis
16. A(n) __________ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
a. baseline
b. cost baseline
c. actual cost
d. cost performance index
17. A(n) __________ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programing language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on.
a. top-down estimate
b. bottom-up estimate
c. parametric model
d. definitive estimate
18. A company might complete a project to develop and implement a new customer service system in one or two years, but the new system could be in place for ten years. Project managers should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for ten years. This is an example of _________.
a. cash flow analysis
b. life cycle costing
c. parametric modeling
d. cost budgeting
19. Which type of estimate is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started?
a. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
b. budgetary estimate
c. definitive estimate
d. analogous estimate
20. Which of the following processes of project cost management involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance?
a. cost estimating
b. cost budgeting
c. cost control
d. cash flow analysis
Chapter 9: Project Human Resource Management
1. If top management gives project managers organizational authority, project managers can use __________ in several situations, such as making key decisions without involving the project team.
a. coercive power
b. expert power
c. reward power
d. legitimate power
2. People hold someone with __________ in very high regard and will do what they say based on their regard for the person.
a. coercive power
b. expert power
c. legitimate power
d. referent power
3. A(n) __________ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.
a. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
b. RACI chart
c. organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
d. work breakdown structure (WBS)
4. Which of the following processes of human resource management involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance?
a. human resource planning
b. acquiring the project team
c. developing the project team
d. managing the project team
5. A(n) __________ describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.
a. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
b. RACI chart
c. organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
d. staffing management plan
6. What are the five stages of team development, according to the Tuckman model?
a. Forming, Staffing, Naming, Performing, Adjourning
b. Forming, Scheduling, Norming, Performing, Addressing
c. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
d. Forming, Storming, Norming, Providing, Adjusting
7. People tend to like people who are like themselves, and __________ helps you take on some of the other person's characteristics.
a. synergy
b. rapport
c. mirroring
d. empathic listening
8. Which of the following maps the work of the project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the OBS?
a. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
b. RACI chart
c. resource histogram
d. staffing management plan
9. Which of the following processes of human resource management involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships?
a. human resource planning
b. acquiring the project team
c. developing the project team
d. managing the project team
10. Which of the following types of power involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do?
a. coercive power
b. expert power
c. reward power
d. referent power
11. __________ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.
a. Synergy
b. Rapport
c. Mirroring
d. Empathic listening
12. __________ states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
a. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
b. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
c. McCleland's Acquired-Needs Theory
d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y
13. __________ causes people to participate in an activity for thier own enjoyment.
a. Power
b. Intrinsic motivation
c. Extrinsic motivation
d. Legitimate power
14. According to __________, some managers follow the set of assumptions that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various controls schemes to get workers to met objectives. Other managers assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.
a. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
b. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
c. McCleland's Acquired-Needs Theory
d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y
15. According to __________, people are motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. Motivators include achievement, recognition, the work itself, responsibility, advancement, and growth.
a. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
b. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory
c. McCleland's Acquired-Needs Theory
d. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y
16. According to the psychological types in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), which of the following dimensions relates to the matter in which you gather information?
a. extrovert/introvert (E/I)
b. sensation/intuition (S/N)
c. thinking/feeling (T/F)
d. judgement/perception (J/P)
17. Key outputs of which process of human resource management are project staff assignments, resource availability information, and updates to the staffing management plan?
a. human resource planning
b. acquiring the project team
c. developing the project team
d. managing the project team
18. Which of the following is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time?
a. RACI chart
b. staffing management plan
c. resource histogram
d. responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
19. Which of the following refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods?
a. overallocation
b. resource loading
c. resource leveling
d. resource histogram
20. __________ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
a. Human resource planning
b. Acquiring the project team
c. Developing the project team
Chapter 10: Project Communications
1. When using the __________, the project manager de-emphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement.
a. smoothing mode
b. confrontation mode
c. forcing mode
d. withdrawal mode
2. Which of the following addresses where the project stands in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost goals?
a. status reports
b. progress reports
c. forecasts
d. performance reporting
3. Project team members may become stagnant or develop __________ if there are no conflicting viewpoints on various aspects of a project.
a. synergy
b. mirroring
c. rapport
d. groupthink
4. Which of the following is a guideline that will help you use e-mail more effectively?
a. Even if you can call someone or have a meeting, it is always better to send an e-mail because it's more efficient.
b. Make sure you 'reply to all' when responding to e-mail.
c. Delete all your e-mail as soon as you respond to it to prevent a cluttered Inbox.
d. The body of the e-mail should be as clear and concise as possible and you should always reread your e-mail before you send it.
5. Which of the following is a reflective statement documenting important things the project team has learned from working on the project?
a. status report
b. lessons-learned report
c. project archive
d. blog
6. As the number of people communicating increases above __________, the number of communications channels increases rapidly.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
7. A(n) __________ is a tool to document and monitor the resolution of project issues.
a. expectations management matrix
b. issue log
c. blog
d. forecast
8. Which of the following is the least desirable conflict-handling mode, because project managers retreat from an actual or potential disagreement?
a. smoothing mode
b. confrontation mode
c. forcing mode
d. withdrawal mode
9. Because communication is so important on projects, every project should include a(n) __________, which is a document that guides project communications.
a. communications infrastructure plan
b. information distribution plan
c. communications management plan
d. expectations management matrix
10. Managers who are very competitive or autocratic in their management style might favor this approach to conflict handling.
a. smoothing mode
b. confrontation mode
c. forcing mode
d. withdrawal mode
11. __________ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.
a. Status reports
b. Progress reports
c. Forecasts
d. Performance reports
12. Which of the following is a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings?
a. Make sure everyone involved on the project is in attendance.
b. Don't be too specific about what should happen as a result of the meeting.
c. Determine if a meeting can be avoided.
d. Handouts and visual aids can confuse the presentation and are inefficient.
13. __________ involves managing communications to satisfy the needs and expectations of project stakeholders and to resolve issues.
a. Communications planning
b. Information distribution
c. Performance reporting
d. Managing stakeholders
14. __________ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.
a. Status reports
b. Progress reports
c. Forecasts
d. Performance reports
15. If a team of three people are working together on one particular project task, they have three communications channels. If you add two more people to their team, you would have __________ communications channels.
a. ten
b. twelve
c. thirteen
d. fourteen
16. Which of the following processes of project communications management involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting?
a. communications planning
b. information distribution
c. performance reporting
d. managing stakeholders
17. Which of the following processes of project communications management involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders?
a. communications planning
b. information distribution
c. performance reporting
d. managing stakeholders
18. __________ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.
a. Status reports
b. Lessons-learned reports
c. Project archives
d. Blogs
19. __________ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.
a. Communications planning
b. Information distribution
c. Performance reporting
d. Managing stakeholders
20. When using the __________, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
a. smoothing mode
b. confrontation mode
c. forcing mode
d. withdrawal mode
Chapter 11: Project Risk Management
1. Which of the following simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results?
a. sensitivity analysis
b. Monte Carlo analysis
c. qualitative risk analysis
d. quantitative risk analysis
2. Which of the following is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgement?
a. brainstorming
b. interviewing
c. Delphi technique
d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
3. Which of the following response strategies for negatives risks includes shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party?
a. risk acceptance
b. risk transference
c. risk mitigation
d. risk avoidance
4. Which of the following involves establishing a periodic review of the project's most significant risk items with management and, optionally, with the customer?
a. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
b. Monte Carlo analysis
c. sensitivity analysis
d. probability/impact matrix
5. Which of the following response strategies for positive risk includes doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens?
a. risk exploitation
b. risk sharing
c. risk enhancement
d. risk acceptance
6. A(n) __________ summarizes how risk management will be performed on a particular project.
a. contingency plan
b. risk management plan
c. fallback plan
d. risk response plan
7. A(n) _________ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
a. decision tree
b. watch list
c. sensitivity analysis
d. Monte Carlo analysis
8. Which of the following processes of risk management involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives?
a. risk management planning
b. risk response planning
c. qualitative risk analysis
d. quantitative risk analysis
9. A(n) __________ lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
a. decision tree
b. influence diagram
c. risk register
d. probability/impact matrix
10. Which of the following is used to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments?
a. brainstorming
b. interviewing
c. Delphi technique
d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
11. Which of the following describe numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur?
a. risk events
b. risk factors
c. secondary risks
d. triggers
12. A(n) __________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.
a. flow chart
b. influence diagram
c. risk register
d. risk event
13. Which of the following response strategies for negatives risks includes reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurence?
a. risk acceptance
b. risk transference
c. risk mitigation
d. risk avoidance
14. Which of the following is a diagram that shows how different parts of a system interrelate? For example, many programmers create these to show programming logic.
a. flow charts
b. influence diagrams
c. risk registers
d. risk events
15. __________ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence.
a. Risk management planning
b. Risk response planning
c. Qualitative risk analysis
d. Quantitative risk analysis
16. Which of the following response strategies for positive risk includes allocating ownership of the risk to another party?
a. risk exploitation
b. risk sharing
c. risk enhancement
d. risk acceptance
17. __________ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective.
a. Contingency plans
b. Risk management plans
c. Fallback plans
d. Risk response plans
18. Which of the following processes of risk management involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives?
a. risk management planning
b. risk response planning
c. qualitative risk analysis
d. quantitative risk analysis
19. A __________ person prefers outcomes that are more uncertain and is often willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
a. risk-sharing
b. risk-adverse
c. risk-seeking
d. risk-neutral
20. Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a(n) __________ person. In other words, when more payoff or money is at stake, the person gains less satisfaction from the risk, or has lower tolerance for the risk.
a. risk-sharing
b. risk-adverse
c. risk-seeking
d. risk-neutral
Information Technology Project Management
